(i) Life didn't grind to a halt because a retired civil engineer came up with the innovative idea of creating artificial glaciers to tackle the water shortage.

(ii) (c) glacier melt

(iii) icing : cake :: layers : ice (artificial glacier / layers of ice)

(iv) (a) on sloping hills facing distribution channels.

(v) (c) July, August, September.

(vi) (a) glaciers

(vii) (c) situated

(viii) Two steps in creating an artificial glacier:

1. River or stream water at high altitude is diverted to a shaded, north-facing area of the hill where winter sun is blocked.
2. Stone embankments are built at regular intervals to impede water flow, making shallow pools that freeze and form a cascade of ice along the slope.

(ix) Artificial glaciers are the best option because they are located between the natural glacier and the village, melting early (April–May) during the crucial sowing season when water is most scarce, enabling farmers to grow two crops instead of one.

(x) (c) Artificial Glacier.

---

• Each answer is drawn directly from the passage; avoid adding outside information.
• For (iii), the analogy compares layers on a cake (icing) to layers of ice forming the artificial glacier — both build up in strata.
• For (viii), any two clearly stated steps from paragraph 5 earn full marks.
• For (x), the passage is specifically about artificial glaciers as a solution — that is the central theme, making (c) the best title.

(i) (c) to hike.

(ii) (d) because the depressing daily routine is forgotten.

(iii) The various sounds of nature acquire a new meaning and significance to us.

(iv) Hiking takes us into the midst of nature — the sight of waterfalls, flowers, streams, trees and bushes brings us close to the natural world, establishing a connect between us and nature.

(v) aroma : cooking ; fragrance : flowers

(vi) (b) because of the excitement of climbing up and adventure of coming down.

(vii) (d) it is an escape from our busy schedule.

(viii) Two examples of minute observations while hiking:

• A snake casting its slough.
• A mouse peeping out of its hole.

(ix) Hiking gives us a feeling of unlimited joy because the freedom of being away from the city — walking along mountain paths, facing the weather, and looking at vast scenery — makes our hearts leap with joy.

(x) The word that can substitute 'leap with joy' is exult (to rejoice greatly / be elated).

Source: Reading Passage — "Hiking"

---

• (iii) Quote directly from paragraph 2; partial answers lose marks.
• (iv) Infer means explain why using evidence from the paragraph — don't just restate the quote.
• (v) "Fragrance" relates to flowers as "aroma" relates to cooking — both are pleasant smells from their sources.
• (viii) Any two from: snake casting slough, mouse peeping out, squirrel leaping on branches, bird flying past.
• (x) Acceptable synonyms: exult, rejoice, jubilate. Examiners accept any correct single word.

(i) The colourful badge was sewn onto uniforms and bags to mark/celebrate the centenary of 100 years of the Scout Movement in 2007.

(ii) From paragraph 1, we can infer that the Scout Movement was set up to help young people achieve their full potential as they grow up.

(iii) 10 years : decade :: 100 years : centenary

(iv) 'Aids to Scouting' was written by Baden-Powell while he was in the army and focused heavily on military scouting and survival in the wild. In contrast, 'Scouting for Boys' had less emphasis on the military and was more focused on general scouting activities suited for boys.

(v) The phrase 'one world one promise' means that scouts across the entire world, regardless of their country or background, are united by one common commitment — the Scout promise and its shared values of peace and brotherhood (symbolised by doves and the globe).

(vi) (C) Thailand
(Scouting introduced in 1911; Guiding introduced in 1957 — a gap of 46 years, the maximum among all listed countries.)

(vii)
(a) 2007 marked the 100th anniversary (centenary) of the Scout Movement.
(b) 2007 was also the 150th anniversary of Baden-Powell's birth.

(viii) (B) encouraging
(The movement grew from a small camp in 1907 to 32 million scouts and 10 million guides across 216 countries by 2006.)

Source: "Scouts and Guides Around the World", paragraphs 1–5 and table.

---

• Q(i): "Infer" means give a reason from the text — the badge was for the centenary celebration.
• Q(iii): "Centenary" is explicitly used in paragraph 4 for 100 years — always look for the exact word from the passage in analogy questions.
• Q(iv): This is a 2-mark contrast question — you must clearly state what each book focused on. One point per book = 2 marks.
• Q(vi): Calculate the gap for each country from the table: Thailand (1957−1911 = 46 years) is the largest gap. Philippines is 8 years; India is 2 years; Indonesia is 0 years.
• Q(viii): "Encouraging" fits because growth from 0 to 32 million scouts in 216 countries is positive/impressive — not uniform, inconsistent, or disappointing.

(i) Mango is known as the King of Fruits because, in addition to its great taste, it has many good qualities (such as cultural importance, wide popularity, and nutritional value).

(ii) The statement is a fact because it is an objective detail (it is a verifiable, data-based figure, not a personal judgement).

(iii) India exports only 0.52% of its production because of challenges like high transportation costs, limited shelf life of mangoes, fewer trade agreements with major importing countries, and stiff competition from countries like Peru, Thailand, and Mexico, which export far higher percentages of their production.

(iv) U.S.A., Kuwait, and Bahrain were at par with each other, each accounting for 2% of Indian mango exports in 2019-20.

(v) India is unable to fully tap the potential of its largest importing market due to high transportation costs (sea route distance) and the limited shelf life of mangoes.

(vi) (B) solutions

(vii) India is described as the largest producer of mangoes because it accounts for 46.02% of the total world mango-growing area and 45.88% of total world mango production. Major producing states include Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka, Bihar, Gujarat, and Tamil Nadu.

(viii) (C) India is the largest producer of mangoes and by putting in more efforts, has the potential to be the largest exporter too.

Source: Passage on Mango Export, Paras 1–3 and Table

---

• (i) The analogy asks you to mirror the structure — pick qualities stated in Para 1 (taste + many good qualities).
• (ii) "Fact vs opinion" and "objective vs subjective" — a percentage figure from data is always a fact/objective detail.
• (iii) 2 marks = 2 valid reasons from the passage (transportation, shelf life, competition, fewer trade agreements).
• (iv) Read the table carefully — USA, Kuwait, Bahrain all show 2%.
• (v) Draw a logical inference linking the two given facts; the passage hints at transportation cost and shelf life.
• (vi) "Challenges" is negative; its antonym among the options is "solutions" (B).
• (vii) Quote both statistics (area % and production %) — examiners expect both numbers.
• (viii) The passage's central argument is that India can become a top exporter with effort — option C captures this best.

(i) (B) Renewable energy sources are inexhaustible whereas alternate energy sources could be exhaustible.

(ii) The tone is optimistic/positive. The writer is hopeful and encouraging, highlighting that factors like increased demand, better technology, and improved efficiency have made alternative energy practical and affordable for consumers — something that was not possible earlier.

(iii) In the past, alternative energy sources were not used much by consumers because the equipment necessary to harness energy from these sources was so expensive that it wasn't practical for consumer use.

(iv) The two sets of antonyms are:

• (b) exhaustible and inexhaustible
• (e) sustainable and exhaustible

(v) Wind energy is the leader of the renewable energy pack because it has the highest energy efficiency among all renewable sources. It is also versatile — it can power individuals, communities, and even large offshore wind farms.

(vi) Geothermal electricity is generated by tapping underground reservoirs of hot water and steam, and can directly heat and cool buildings. Hydroelectricity, on the other hand, is produced from the energy of moving water — water behind a dam moves turbine blades, which rotate a generator to produce electricity for homes.

(vii) (C) There are plenty of renewable energy sources that can be used to replace traditional energy sources.

(viii) False. The passage states that hydroelectricity is sent to power homes; it does not mention commercial purposes.

Source: Passage on Alternative and Renewable Energy, Paras 1–8

---

• (i) Para 3 directly states renewable sources are inexhaustible; alternative sources are exhaustible — making (B) the clear answer.
• (ii) Tone questions need a label + justification. "Optimistic" fits because the writer shifts from a problem to a hopeful resolution using "however."
• (iii) The answer is a direct lift from Para 4 — always look for direct evidence in comprehension.
• (iv) Antonyms must be opposite in meaning. "Sustainable" and "exhaustible" are opposites; so are "exhaustible" and "inexhaustible." Sets (a) and (d) are synonyms, not antonyms.
• (v) Para 5 is the source — quote efficiency + versatility for a complete 1-mark answer.
• (vi) Keep the comparison crisp: source of generation + use/output for each. Don't mix them up.
• (vii) The passage covers multiple renewable sources as alternatives to fossil fuels — (C) captures the central message best.
• (viii) The passage only mentions homes for hydroelectricity (Para 6), so "commercial purposes" makes the statement False.

(i) Two objectives of NEP 2020:

• To revamp all aspects of education to align with the aspirational goals of 21st century students.
• To overcome the social status hierarchy associated with skill education and integrate it into mainstream education.

(ii) The statement is a fact because it is an objective detail stated in the policy document.

(iii) (C) Minimum 50% learners shall have exposure to skill education.

(iv) The benefit of the hub and spoke model will be that skill labs set up in one school can be shared and used by other schools, making the facility accessible to more students.

(v) Racism : condemn :: dignity of labour : respect

(vi) As per the Global Scenario, South Korea has the maximum percentage (96%) of students in skill education. A possible reason is that South Korea has a well-established vocational training system with strong government support and close industry-education linkages, making skill education a mainstream and respected career path.

(vii) (A) middle and secondary school

(viii) NEP 2020 states that every child will learn at least one skill and be exposed to several more, which will emphasize the dignity of labour and the importance of various vocations involving Indian arts and artisanship, thus creating awareness and appreciation for them.

---

• Answer each sub-question strictly from the passage; do not add outside information except for (vi) where a reasonable inference is acceptable.
• (ii) is tricky — since the statement is presented as a policy declaration (objective), it is a fact, not an opinion.
• (v) The analogy asks for something that is respected just as racism is condemned — "dignity of labour" fits perfectly from paragraph (3).
• For (vi), South Korea's 96% is clearly the highest; a brief logical reason earns the second mark.

(i)
(a) To highlight the richness of the world's cultures.
(b) To emphasize the essential role of intercultural dialogue for achieving peace and sustainable development.

(ii) (D) highlighting the real worth of cultural and creative sector at generating social cohesion and educational resource during an international emergency.

(iii) The 17 SDGs can best be achieved by drawing upon the creative potential of the world's diverse cultures and engaging in continuous dialogue. This ensures that all members of society benefit equally from sustainable development, with culture playing a key enabling role.

(iv) The tone is persuasive and assertive. The writer strongly argues that cultural diversity is not a barrier but an indispensable asset — essential for poverty reduction and sustainable development. The use of "indispensable" reflects confidence and urgency in promoting cultural diversity's value.

(v) (D) filling in the space between two connected things.

(vi) (C) d and e — "essential" and "intrinsic" are synonyms (both mean fundamentally important); "urgent" and "crucial" are synonyms (both mean critically necessary).

(vii) The Second Committee of the UN General Assembly in 2015 adopted the resolution on Culture and Sustainable Development, affirming culture's contribution to the three dimensions of sustainable development.

(viii) Bridging the gap between cultures is urgent and necessary for peace, stability and development.

Source: Passage on World Day for Cultural Diversity for Dialogue and Development

---

• (i) Pull two distinct points directly from para 1 — don't paraphrase loosely; the examiner checks for accuracy.
• (ii) Option D is correct because it captures both "cultural AND creative sector" and both outcomes (social cohesion + educational resource). Options A/B/C each miss or distort one element.
• (iii) 2-mark answers need two developed ideas (~40 words). Quote para 3 closely: "creative potential of diverse cultures" + "continuous dialogue."
• (iv) Name the tone (persuasive/assertive), then justify with textual evidence. 2 marks = tone + reasoning.
• (v) "Bridging the gap" idiomatically means reducing/filling the distance between things — D is closest. B uses "desperate" (wrong word) and is conceptually off.
• (vi) Check carefully: d (essential ≈ intrinsic ✓) and e (urgent ≈ crucial ✓). Both pairs are correct → answer C.
• (vii)/(viii) Direct retrieval from paras 6 and 4 respectively — copy accurately for full marks.

(i) (B) The consumers are confused

(ii) The word is "thriving" — it indicates that assisting consumers has become a profitable industry.

(iii) The marketing approach primarily concerned with understanding consumers based on various factors is Data utilization (digital advertising, cataloging people by gender, income level, personal interests, etc.).

(iv) Cataloging people by gender, income level, personal interests etc. is to Data utilization as Algorithms, influencers, and ad tech are to Retail Assistance.

(v) (D) Retail Assistance

(vi) The solution to combat choice fatigue is to employ lifestyle influencers on Instagram who provide self-improving content and product references.

(vii) The different approach to revolutionise consumer choices is to offer limited, functional, mid-priced products that instil customer confidence and break the cycle of consumerism.

(viii) The writer believes that global product abundance cannot be equitable because creators often prioritize wealthier consumers, ignoring those with lower purchasing power.

(ix) Although startups promise accessible simplicity, their structure has two major drawbacks. First, they rely on hundreds of millions of dollars in venture capital funding, which creates pressure to expand rapidly. Second, because investors typically expect rapid growth, these startups are eventually pushed to offer more and more products, leading them back to the same overwhelming array of choices they originally sought to eliminate — defeating their own purpose.

Source: Passage on online shopping and consumer choices

---

• (i) "Perfect storm" signals chaos/confusion, not happiness or confidence.
• (ii) "Thriving" directly means flourishing/profitable — pick the single word the question asks for.
• (iii) & (iv) & (v) These are table-based — map descriptions to their correct Aspect labels carefully.
• (vi) "Employ" fits grammatically and contextually; "follow" is informal, "recommend" changes the subject.
• (vii) Paraphrase paragraph 3 accurately — key idea is "limited, functional, mid-priced products."
• (viii) Paragraph 4 is the source — stick to "creators prioritize wealthier consumers."
• (ix) For 2 marks, identify two drawbacks: (1) venture capital dependency and (2) pressure for rapid growth → return to overwhelming choices. Both points must appear.

(i) (A) social interaction is necessary to nurture creativity.

(ii) (A) Both the Assertion and Reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(iii) The word is inexhaustible.

(iv) The study reveals a sharp decline in creative thinking with age. While 98% of children aged 3–5 showed creative thinking, this dropped to 10% among 13–15 year olds and further to just 2% among 25 year olds. Thus, innate creativity erodes significantly as one reaches adulthood.

(v) Creativity is thus a social process.

(vi) According to the passage, creativity thrives in science and technology and in rapidly revitalizing cities, apart from arts and culture.

(vii) About thirty-three percent citizens engage their creative faculties in tasks that use their creative skills — as artists, musicians, writers, techies, innovators, entrepreneurs, doctors, lawyers, journalists, or educators.

(viii) The passage views the future of creativity with cautious optimism. It states that creativity is not in danger and is flourishing in science, technology, arts, culture, and revitalizing cities. However, it also cautions that society still has a long way to go before it can truly support and reward the creativity of every individual.

Source: Reading Comprehension Passage (Created for academic usage)

---

• (i): Para 1 focuses on social interaction fostering creativity — the central theme.
• (ii): The assertion correctly contradicts the myth of individual genius, and the reason (social process) directly explains why that myth is wrong — so it's the correct explanation.
• (iii): "Inexhaustible" = cannot be used up/depleted; it appears in the first sentence of Para 1.
• (iv): 2-mark answer needs both the specific statistics AND the conclusion ("adulthood witnesses erosion"). Always include the numbers from the passage.
• (v): Directly lifted from Para 1 — "creativity is a social process."
• (vi): Para 5 lists science & technology, arts & culture, and cities — the question asks apart from arts and culture.
• (vii): Para 4 says roughly one-third engage creative faculties — list any examples from the passage to complete the answer naturally.
• (viii): 2-mark answer needs both the optimistic view (flourishing) AND the cautionary note (long way to go) from Para 5.

(i) The variance in climate and landscape of Uttarakhand is marked by altitude (186 – 7619 m).

(ii) Most of the lowland forests are cleared due to the large-scale agricultural practices.

(iii) Haridwar has the lowest rainfall in Uttarakhand (1107 mm normal annual rainfall).

(iv) (C) ends
('Lasts' means continues until a point; its antonym is 'ends'.)

(v) The monsoon rainfall accounts for 78% of the total annual precipitation of 1446 mm. Such a heavy concentration of rainfall within a short period (June–September) overwhelms drainage systems, making Uttarakhand highly prone to flooding during the monsoon season.

(vi) (D) Bageshwar and Haridwar
(Bageshwar receives the maximum — 1872 mm; Haridwar receives the minimum — 1107 mm.)

(vii)

| Assertion | Reasoning |
|---|---|
| The temperatures vary widely in the state of Uttarakhand. | This is due to the differences in topographical features across the state. |

(viii) The Bhabhar belt is formed by the moist deciduous forests of the Upper Gangetic Plains along the lower foothills of Uttarakhand, bordering U.P.

(ix) Statement (B) is not true.
The passage states that the mean maximum and mean minimum temperatures range from 10° to 12 °C at altitudes of 2 km — not 15° to 20 °C as stated in option (B).

Source: Passage on Climate and Landscape of Uttarakhand, paragraphs 1–4

---

• (i) The key phrase "vary greatly with altitude" is directly in paragraph 1 — copy it precisely.
• (iv) 'Lasts' = continues/persists; its antonym is 'ends' (C). Students often confuse antonym with synonym here.
• (v) Must link two facts: 78% rainfall concentrated in monsoon + total annual precipitation = reason for flood risk. Two marks need two connected points.
• (vii) The reasoning must come from paragraph 4's opening line: "Due to the differences in topographical features."
• (viii) Students sometimes confuse Bhabhar with Terai — Bhabhar is specifically the moist deciduous forest belt of the Upper Gangetic Plains.
• (ix) A direct fact-check against paragraph 4: the passage clearly says 10°–12 °C, making option B false.

(i) (D) It can only search but not research.

(ii) The professor told the author that he could publish in a research journal only when he had read everything on the subject and had something original to add to the existing body of research. It meant research must contribute new knowledge, not merely repeat what is already known.

(iii) Dependable : reliable : rational : reasonable

(iv) ChatGPT's write-up is a mere summary drawn from countless databases. In contrast, the author's research article presents original, unique ideas processed through his own perspective and thinking, creating a fresh angle that adds new value to the existing body of knowledge.

(v) …but it still lacked original thought, a unique perspective, and the ability to add anything new to the existing body of knowledge.

(vi) (D) speed

(vii) True. The passage states: "Research has no value if it only summarises known information."

(viii) ChatGPT replied: "As an AI language model, I don't hold personal beliefs, but I can present arguments on both sides of the topic."

---

• (i) The very first line of the passage is the key: "ChatGPT can search. It cannot research." Option D captures this directly.
• (ii) Quote/paraphrase paragraph 9 closely; the examiner looks for "read everything" + "original addition."
• (iii) The analogy is synonym-based: dependable = reliable, so rational = reasonable.
• (iv) Paragraph 6 is the source — contrast "mere summary" vs. "original ideas/fresh angle."
• (v) The missing element is originality/personal perspective — inferred from paragraphs 6 and 7.
• (vi) Paragraph 3: "speed…mind-boggling" — answer is D.
• (vii) Straight lift from paragraph 7.
• (viii) Direct quote from paragraph 2 — copy it exactly for full marks.

I. B — It has developed very quickly.

II. A — Both the Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(EVs make India self-sustainable by freeing it from imported energy, which directly explains the major change.)

III. Two benefits of EVs over ICE vehicles:

• EVs emit 30–80% less greenhouse gas compared to ICE vehicles.
• EVs do not consume any energy when stationary, whereas ICE vehicles consume fuel even when idle.

IV. The word 'idle' in paragraph (3) most nearly means stationary / not moving / at rest (when the vehicle is running but not in motion, consuming fuel unnecessarily).

V. Electric vehicles are solutions to be independent and free from imported energy resources, thus reducing a country's reliance on foreign energy.

VI. EV could be the alternative to reduce the carbon dioxide gas emission.

VII. Evidence: "The government have started financial policies to encourage EV adoption." This shows the government is actively encouraging the use of Electric Vehicles.

VIII. The result of the implementation of FAME scheme is that the EV market in India has grown significantly / gained further momentum.

IX. The long-term perspective by decision makers is to ensure that the financial policies encouraging EV adoption are implemented efficiently.

Source: Reading passage on Electric Vehicles (EV), paragraphs 1–4

---

• I & II are direct inference/MCQ — pick the answer closest to the passage's meaning.
• III needs two distinct points; always quote figures from the passage (30–80%, stationary vs. idle) for full marks.
• IV — 'idle' here means the engine is running but the vehicle is not moving; 'stationary' is the passage's own clue word.
• V, VI, VII, VIII, IX — lift key phrases directly from the passage; paraphrase minimally. Examiners reward accuracy to the text over creative rewording.

I. ESD is now high on the international agenda because it encourages sustainable consumption and production, counters climate change, addresses threats to biodiversity, and provides more effective disaster risk reduction.

II. The UN views ESD as a lifelong process spanning from early childhood to higher and adult education, going beyond formal education. Critical areas of emphasis include values, lifestyles, and attitudes, with particular importance placed on children, since these are established from an early age.

III. Two curriculum projects ESD has been linked with:

• Recycling
• Energy and water conservation

IV. Many of our fundamental attitudes and values are put into place in the early years as children have the greatest capacity to learn during this period, as shown by research from developmental psychology, neuroscience, and longitudinal studies.

V. B — power to reform
('Transformational reconstruction' implies the power to bring about fundamental reform and change.)

VI. C — UNICEF reports show that children under the age of eight represent the highest percentage of affected population in global emergencies.

VII. Equitable access to high-quality pre-school programmes remains a problem in both rich and poor countries. Linking the health and education agenda has been recognised as crucial/extremely important.

VIII. The writer's tone in the passage is informative and persuasive (the writer presents facts and research to convince readers of the importance of ESD).

Source: Reading Comprehension Passage — Paragraphs 1, 2, and 3

---

• I & IV: Complete-the-sentence questions need a phrase that flows grammatically; lift key ideas directly from the passage.
• II: Two-mark questions need two distinct points — here: span of ESD + critical areas.
• III: List questions need exact examples from the text; any two from the four listed are acceptable.
• V: "Transformational reconstruction" = fundamental reform = power to reform (B). "Positive change" is too vague; "power to reform" best captures the structural meaning.
• VI: This is a direct-retrieval MCQ — option C matches the passage verbatim.
• VII: Two parts in one mark — keep both answers brief.
• VIII: The tone question tests reading inference; "informative and persuasive" is standard for such passages that present data and argue a case. Examiners accept "analytical and informative" too.

(i) A natural spring emerges when, in some cases such as a valley or gully on a mountain, the level of the spring can come to the surface naturally.

(ii) A confined aquifer is a deep underground cavity of porous rock that holds water and bears pressure from a confining layer above it.

(iii) Due to the pressurised nature of the confined aquifer, water rises up and forms a flowing artesian well, appearing as an explosive fountain at the surface when the surface is lower than the natural water table.

(iv) Reverse osmosis involves pressing water through microscopic membranes that block contaminants. It is most effective against salt, nitrates, and lime scale, but produces a lot of unusable waste water as a by-product.

(v) Pathogens are treated using ultraviolet (UV) light. Water passes through a treatment chamber where powerful UV light neutralises harmful germs by removing their DNA, preventing them from replicating.

(vi) Municipal water is treated by chlorination because UV treatment has variable effects. Chlorination is inexpensive, has a powerful antimicrobial effect, and keeps water contaminant-free all the way through the pipes to domestic taps.

Source: "Extraction and Purification of Drinking Water," Paragraphs 1–5

---

• The question asks for any five out of six, but it is safer to attempt all six and let the examiner credit the best five.
• Each answer must come directly from the passage — no outside knowledge.
• Keep each sub-answer to 1–2 sentences only (1 mark each).
• Key examiner tip: use the exact words/phrases from the passage where possible (e.g., "porous rock," "confining layer," "removing their DNA") — this signals comprehension and earns full marks.

(Note: Sub-question (i) is unanswered as the question text is missing from the paper. Answering the remaining five as required.)

(ii) Sand is a pain when it gets into our food, but a pleasure as children play on it and adults relax on it.

(iii) Two man-made materials that contain sand are concrete (largely sand) and glass (made of little else).

(iv) Sand grains may have the shape of stars or spirals, with edges that are either jagged or smooth.

(v) White sand originates from sandstone that is several hundred million years old. It has been recycled over millions of years into fine, white beach sand.

(vi) Older granules are finer and have smoother edges, whereas recent (younger) granules tend to be coarser with more jagged edges.

Source: "Sifting through the Sands of Time", Paragraphs 2, 3, 4, 6

---

• Each answer is strictly one sentence/line — matching the 1-mark weightage per sub-question.
• All answers are lifted directly from the passage; examiners reward accuracy over elaboration for comprehension questions.
• For (iv), list both shapes AND edge types — the passage combines them, and a complete answer should too.
• Sub-question (i) is skipped as its text is missing; in the exam, answer whichever five you choose from the six — you are not penalised for skipping one.
• Avoid adding outside knowledge; stick entirely to the passage.

(Answering any five — all six answered; examiner will credit the first five.)

(i) A natural spring emerges when the level of the land, as in a valley or gully on a mountain, dips below the water table level.

(ii) A confined aquifer is a deep underground cavity of porous rock that holds water and bears pressure from a confining layer above it.

(iii) Due to the pressurised nature of the confined aquifer, water rises up and forms a flowing artesian well, appearing as an explosive fountain at the surface when the surface is lower than the natural water table.

(iv) Reverse osmosis is a filtering process where water is pressed through microscopic membranes to remove contaminants. Its disadvantage is that a large amount of unusable water is generated as a by-product and must be discarded.

(v) Pathogens are treated using ultraviolet (UV) light. Water passes through a treatment chamber where UV light neutralises harmful germs by removing their DNA, preventing them from replicating.

(vi) Municipal water is treated by chlorination because UV treatment has variable effects. Chlorination is inexpensive, has a powerful antimicrobial effect, and keeps water contaminant-free all through the pipes to domestic taps.

Source: "Extraction and Purification of Drinking Water," Paragraphs 1–5

---

• The question says "any five," but writing all six is safe practice — the examiner credits only the first five attempted.
• Each answer must be drawn directly from the passage; do not add outside knowledge.
• 1 mark each = one clear sentence (or two very short ones) per sub-question. Avoid over-writing.
• Key examiner check: Does your answer use the passage's own phrasing/facts? That is what fetches the mark.

(Note: Answering five out of six — omitting (i) as the passage for paragraph 1 is incomplete/unclear.)

(ii) Sand is a pain when it gets into our food, but a pleasure when children play on it and adults relax on it at the beach.

(iii) Two man-made materials containing sand are concrete (largely sand) and glass (made of little else).

(iv) Sand grains may have the shape of stars or spirals, with edges that are either jagged or smooth.

(v) White sand originates from sandstone that is several hundred million years old, which has been recycled over time into fine, white beach sand.

(vi) Older granules are finer and have smoother edges compared to recent granules, which tend to be coarser with more jagged edges.

Source: "Sifting through the Sands of Time," paragraphs 2–6

---

• Answer strictly from the passage — do not add outside knowledge.
• Each answer is one to two sentences (1 mark each); going longer wastes time.
• Use key words from the passage (e.g., "sandstone several hundred million years old" for white sand) — examiners look for these.
• For (vi), the contrast must be clear: older = finer + smoother; recent/newer = coarser + jagged. Both points together earn the mark.
• If paragraph 1 text is garbled in your paper, attempt (i) only if readable; otherwise pick the five clearest questions as allowed.

(i) Rowling started as an unknown writer with unpublished novels, but after Harry Potter became a hit, she skyrocketed to the top of the publishing world and became enormously wealthy and famous — a rise so rapid it seemed almost magical.

(ii) The publishers rejected Rowling's book saying the plot was too complex.

(iii) The drawback of achieving fame was that journalists knocked on the door of her flat day and night, leaving her with no privacy.

(iv) Rowling was outraged because the Italian dust jacket showed Harry without his glasses, which she considered an important clue to his vulnerability.

(v) The word is "vulnerability" (meaning insecure/helpless).

(vi) According to the graph, it took Rowling approximately 6–7 years (from 2010–11 to 2016–17) to become very successful, as earnings jumped to 95 million dollars in 2016–17.

Source: J.K. Rowling – A Journey (Case Study passage)

---

• Answer only five of the six sub-questions as instructed; here all six are covered so the student can choose any five.
• (i) requires paraphrasing the phrase "near magical rise" using passage details — connect humble beginnings to sudden success.
• (ii) & (iv) are direct retrieval — quote/paraphrase the passage exactly.
• (v) is a vocabulary question; the word "vulnerability" appears in the final paragraph and means helpless/insecure.
• (vi) needs graph reading — the dramatic spike is in 2016–17, so count years from the graph's start.
• Keep each answer to 1–2 sentences; these are 1-mark questions.

(i) Milkha Singh is known as "The Flying Sikh." At Melbourne, he realised that his success in India had given him a false sense of pride; on the track, he saw how inconsequential his talents were against superbly fit and seasoned athletes.

(ii) Two achievements: (a) He is the only athlete to win gold in 400 m at both the Asian Games and the Commonwealth Games. (b) He was awarded the Padma Shri for his sporting achievements.

(iii) Every morning he would rise at the crack of dawn, put on his sports kit, and run two or three miles cross-country with his coach.

(iv) Two consequences: (a) He was often drained of all energy. (b) After his rounds, he would sometimes vomit blood or drop down unconscious.

(v) The image of a packed stadium filled with cheering spectators wildly applauding him as he crossed the finishing line motivated him to keep going and become the best athlete.

(vi) "I would start again" means that whenever exhaustion or pain made him want to quit, visions of victory and a cheering crowd renewed his determination and he resumed his training with fresh energy.

---

• The question says "answer any five from six," but to be safe, all six are answered here — choose any five in your exam.
• Each answer must be drawn strictly from the passage; do not add outside information.
• Keep each answer to 1–2 sentences only (1 mark each).
• For (vi), "explain the phrase" means interpret its meaning in context, not just paraphrase it — show why he started again.

(i) Rowling started as an unknown writer with two unpublished novels, but after Harry Potter was published, she quickly rose to the top of the publishing world and earned enormous fame and wealth.

(ii) The publishers rejected Rowling's book saying that the plot was too complex.

(iii) The drawback of achieving fame was that day and night journalists knocked on the door of her flat, disturbing her privacy completely.

(iv) Rowling was outraged because the Italian dust jacket showed Harry without his glasses. She felt the glasses were a clue to Harry's vulnerability and could not be omitted.

(v) The word is "vulnerability" (meaning insecure/helpless).

(vi) According to the graph, it took Rowling approximately 6–7 years (from 2010–11 to 2016–17) to become very successful, as her earnings jumped dramatically to 95 million dollars in 2016–17.

---

• Answer any FIVE — attempt all six and let the examiner pick the best five, which is the safer strategy.
• Each sub-question carries 1 mark, so one clear, direct sentence is enough per answer.
• For (v), the word must be lifted directly from the last paragraph — "vulnerability" is the only match.
• For (vi), read the bar graph carefully: earnings stay low (5–19 million) from 2010–2016, then spike to 95 million in 2016–17, indicating ~6–7 years to peak success.
• Avoid long explanations; examiners reward precision over length for 1-mark answers.

(i) Milkha Singh is known as "The Flying Sikh." On the track at Melbourne, he realised that his success in India had given him a false sense of pride and that his talents were inconsequential against superbly fit, seasoned athletes.

(ii) Two achievements: (a) He is the only athlete to win gold in 400 m at both the Asian Games and Commonwealth Games. (b) He was awarded the Padma Shri, India's fourth-highest civilian honour.

(iii) He followed a self-imposed penance — rising at the crack of dawn every morning, putting on his sports kit, and running two or three miles cross-country with his coach.

(iv) Two consequences: (a) He was completely drained of energy. (b) At times he would vomit blood or drop down unconscious due to sheer exercise.

(v) The vision of a packed stadium with cheering spectators wildly applauding him as he crossed the finishing line motivated him to push through hardship and become the best athlete in the world.

(vi) "I would start again" means that whenever Milkha Singh was exhausted and ready to give up, the inspiring vision of victory — a crowd cheering for him — renewed his determination, and he resumed his rigorous training with fresh energy.

Source: Reading passage on Milkha Singh, paragraphs 1–6

---

• The question asks you to attempt any five of the six sub-questions; answer all six here and choose which five to write in the exam.
• Each sub-question carries 1 mark, so keep each answer to 1–2 sentences only — do not over-write.
• Answers must come directly from the passage; avoid adding outside information (e.g., do not list achievements not mentioned in the text).
• For (vi), "explain the phrase" means interpret its meaning in context — show you understand why he started again, not just that he did.

(i) The 'blackout' phase is significant because it will be the first time communication with the satellite will be completely snapped for such a long period of about 15 days, due to the Sun blocking Mars from the Earth.

(ii) (c) 2, 3 & 5

(iii) (b) 15

(iv) aroma : cooking : : communication : space research
(Just as aroma is integral to cooking, communication is integral to space research.)

(v) (d) only for few
(The official stated that till 8th June, signals will be sent for about two to three hours per day — i.e., only for a few hours.)

(vi) (c) confident

(vii) (a) extra fuel
(The spacecraft's life was extended due to surplus/extra fuel.)

(viii) (b) Both (A) & (B) are false.
(The blackout was planned and configured for in advance; ISRO officials expressed confidence, not nervousness.)

(ix) The word 'nonpareil' can be replaced with elite.
(India managed to get into the elite club of Mars spacecraft in orbit.)

(x) (a) enchantment

---

• For (i), always use the passage to support your inference — the key detail is "first time" + "15 days."
• For (iv), the analogy tests vocabulary in context; "communication" is the concept central to the entire passage and to space research.
• For (viii), both statements contradict the passage — the blackout was pre-planned ("configured") and officials were "confident," so both are false.
• For (ix), "nonpareil" means unrivalled/elite; the passage itself uses "elite club" in paragraph 5 — use that word directly.
• (x) is a vocabulary question; "fascination" means enchantment/charm, so (a) is correct.

(i) (c) 3300 years ago

(ii) (b) because of its religious significance.

(iii) (a) Gold is the best conductor of electricity.
(Gold conducts electricity better than any other substance except copper and silver, so it is NOT the best conductor.)

(iv) (b) importance of the metal

(v) Black labourers in South Africa's gold mines were paid only about 40 pounds a month and were made to work in cruel conditions. About 400 miners died each year, showing extreme exploitation.

(vi) Opinion: King Tutankhamen was buried in a solid gold coffin 3300 years ago.
Reason: Gold had religious significance for them (the ancient Egyptians).

(vii) Two reasons:

1. Gold will not rust or corrode.
2. Gold coins and products fabricated from the metal have survived undamaged for centuries.

(viii) (b) George Harrison

(ix) (d) The steaming food was both appetizing and tasty.
(Both sentences praise a single subject for two different qualities simultaneously — "both...and" structure.)

(x) The working and peasant classes had no faith in paper money, so they preferred to hoard gold as a reliable and stable store of value, trusting it more than government-backed currency.

---

Source: Passage — Paragraphs 1–7

• (iii) is a common trap — students must read carefully; gold is not the best conductor; copper and silver are better.
• (vi) asks for the reason from para 1 — the religious significance line is the direct justification.
• (ix) tests rhetorical/structural similarity: both the passage sentence and option (d) use "both…and" to praise one subject for two qualities simultaneously.
• (x) needs the direct textual reason: "no faith in paper money" — add one supporting inference for full credit.

(i) Our drinkable water sources are finite, meaning the total supply is limited. Since only a tiny fraction of all Earth's water is fresh and accessible, less than 1% is available for human use.

(ii) (b) pollution
(Water dissolves more substances than any other liquid, making it uniquely vulnerable to pollution.)

(iii) natural
(Just as resilient is the opposite of vulnerable, natural is the opposite of artificial.)

(iv) (a) the ecosystem
(Para 3 states: "Water pollution can have disastrous consequences on the ecosystem.")

(v) Two causes of water pollution in our homes (from the chart/passage):

• Use of detergents and fertilizers
• Social and religious offerings in water bodies

(vi) (b) water conservation and reducing plastic waste

(vii) The word similar in meaning to causative is cause (or factor).

(viii) According to the writer, water pollution is defined as the release of substances into subsurface groundwater or into lakes, streams, rivers, estuaries, and oceans to the point where they interfere with the beneficial use of water or the natural functioning of ecosystems.

(ix) Religious rituals impact water bodies through social and religious offerings made directly into them, which act as pollutants and interfere with the natural functioning of the water bodies.

(x) (b) Unsafe Water — A Menace
(The passage focuses on the dangers of unsafe/polluted water and its widespread harmful impact.)

Source: Reading Comprehension Passage — Water Pollution

---

• Each sub-question carries 1 mark, so one precise line/point per answer is enough.
• For analogy (iii), the passage uses "natural functioning," making natural the clear antonym of artificial.
• For (v), home-based causes mentioned are detergents/fertilizers and religious offerings — avoid industrial ones like effluents.
• For (vii), "cause" or "factor" are both acceptable synonyms for "causative."
• For (x), option (b) best covers the passage's central theme — danger of unsafe/polluted water across all paragraphs. Option (a) is too narrow; (c) and (d) are vague.
• Always quote or closely paraphrase the passage for definition-type answers (viii).

(i) (a) floods have led to much greater damage now than in the past.

(ii) (b) speculative
(The writer uses phrases like "could happen" and "is not entirely clear," indicating a speculative tone.)

(iii) "much greater precipitation would take place in a much shorter period of time, thereby increasing the danger of floods."

(iv) Flood forecasting is critical because it helps alert the public and mobilise official agencies to take both preventive and relief measures in time.

(v) (a) True
(People are often reluctant to move even with accurate forecasts as they lack the means and physical options to evacuate.)

(vi) Slum dwellers settle on the banks of rivers like the Yamuna, which is a mere trickle most of the year but bursts its banks during monsoons, making them helpless victims of flooding.

(vii) Two reasons:

1. People lack the means and physical options to move from a danger zone to a safe place.
2. In the case of flash floods, forecasts are difficult to make and the time available for relief is very short.

(viii) (a) Flash floods

(ix) Flooding is not confined only to major rivers; smaller tributaries and streams also spill over their banks, causing excessive harm, especially to those living in mountain areas who cannot move away quickly.

(x) (a) Only I
(Statement I is false — the text mentions population pressure and helpless settling, not superstition. Statement II is not directly stated as a symbol of vulnerability either, but superstition is clearly absent from the text.)

---

• MCQs (i, ii, viii, x): Always locate the exact line in the passage. The writer's use of "could" and "is not entirely clear" signals speculation for (ii). For (x), superstition is never mentioned in the passage, making Statement I false.
• Short answers: Quote or closely paraphrase the passage — examiners reward textual accuracy.
• (iii) is a direct-lift from Para 3; identify the cause-effect phrase precisely.
• (vii) needs two distinct points — don't repeat the same idea in different words.
• Keep each answer to 1–2 lines; these are 1-mark questions.

(i) A vast blanket of pollution stretching across South Asia is modifying rainfall patterns in India by cutting down sunlight by 10 per cent, which disrupts the water cycle and changes monsoon behaviour.

(ii) (a) I, II and III
The pollution is cutting sunlight, damaging agriculture, and modifying rainfall patterns — all mentioned in paragraph 1.

(iii) possibility : potential : : suspecting : doubting
(The word "potential" in paragraph 2 means possibility.)

(iv) (c) There has not been enough time to determine that
Prof. Ramanathan clearly stated "it was too early to reach a conclusion" about droughts being caused by the haze.

(v) (Based on the pie chart reference)

• Does contribute to weather disruption: Pollution/haze (as supported by the passage).
• Does not contribute: A factor unrelated to atmospheric pollution (e.g., wildlife diversity, as per the chart segments).

(Note: Exact answer depends on legible chart labels.)

(vi) (a) worsen
"Aggravate" means to make worse; hence "worsen" is the correct synonym.

(vii) (d) blocking
"Cut down sunlight" means the haze is blocking sunlight from reaching the Earth's surface.

(viii) Two countries affected due to depleting forest cover: India and China (mentioned in paragraph 4).

(ix) (a) destroying
"Depleting" means gradually reducing or exhausting — closest in meaning to destroying/diminishing forest cover.

(x) (a) 1. Impact of Pollution in South Asia 2. Effects of Acid Rain 3. Understanding Consequences of Haze 4. Debate over Droughts
Each title accurately reflects the central idea of its respective paragraph.

---

• Key strategy: Each answer must come directly from the passage — no outside knowledge needed.
• For (iii), identify the word in paragraph 2 that means "possibility" → potential.
• For (vii), "cut down sunlight" = blocking light; do not confuse with "destroying" (that's for depleting).
• For (ix), "depleting forest cover" = forests gradually reducing/being destroyed → (a) destroying is closest among the options.
• For (x), match each paragraph's main idea to the title: para 1 = pollution's impact; para 2 = acid rain effects; para 3 = understanding haze consequences; para 4 = debate over whether haze causes droughts.
• For (v), since the pie chart is not fully legible, refer to what the passage identifies as causes of weather disruption (pollution, haze) vs. unrelated factors.

(i) (d) it does not contain agricultural chemicals.

(ii) (c) caution

(iii) Reason: demand overtook supply (big food companies that had been selling non-organic products for many years also began selling organic products because demand overtook supply).

(iv) Organic farms do not use agricultural chemicals such as pesticides, whereas non-organic farms do use them to protect crops from insects.

(v) Eating organically-grown produce reduces your chances of developing heart diseases.

(vi) The writer states that meat, fish, and chicken can become contaminated; therefore, washing hands before handling these foods is important to control the spread of dangerous bacteria.

(vii) (b) there is no confirmed evidence

(viii) Some people think organic also means environment-friendly / naturally grown / produced without harmful chemicals, i.e., grown in a way that is closer to nature and free from artificial pesticides.

(ix) Doctors recommend washing produce carefully before eating it to control contamination of both organic and non-organic food.

(x) In many countries, foods must carry special labels that guarantee they were grown organically — this certification certifies food to be organic.

Source: Reading Comprehension Passage on Organic Food, Paragraphs 1–4

---

• (i): The passage directly says parents pay high prices if they think it is healthier — linked to no agricultural chemicals (option d).
• (ii): The writer raises the question without confirming either side — this signals caution, not confirmation or denial.
• (iii): The exact phrase "demand overtook supply" from paragraph 3 is the expected answer.
• (iv): The passage states the one main difference — use vs. non-use of pesticides/agricultural chemicals.
• (v): Pick the one benefit explicitly stated — reduced risk of heart disease (paragraph 4).
• (vi): Focus on the cause-effect link: contamination of meat/fish/chicken → wash hands before handling.
• (vii): The writer presents the debate without proof, saying "many believe" but not confirming — hence no confirmed evidence.
• (viii): The passage implies organic = naturally grown without chemicals; "environment-friendly" is an acceptable inference.
• (ix): Stick to the passage's own recommendation — washing produce carefully.
• (x): The passage clearly states special labels/certification is the marker of organic food.

(i) The cost of solving or reducing traffic congestion is enormous, which makes it difficult to address easily.

(ii) (d) 2, 3
(Paragraph 2 mentions increase in number of vehicles; paragraph 3 gives the specific statistic of 5 lakh vehicles added.)

(iii) organized : chaotic :: lowest : peak
(Peak is the antonym of lowest, as used in paragraph 5 — "peak hours.")

(iv) The vehicles emit pollutants which affect the environment badly.

(v) Use of public transport will reduce traffic congestion / the use of private vehicles on roads.

(vi) (b) 3, 5
(Wait — paragraph 5 mentions solutions: use public transport, carpool, vehicle sharing. Option (b) is correct.)

(vii) According to the Delhi Economic Survey 2020-21, Delhi's vehicular population increased by more than five lakh vehicles, registering over 4% growth. This indicates traffic congestion worsened steadily between 2019 and 2022.

[For visually challenged]: Proper implementation of corrective measures by citizens is required to get an organized traffic management system.

(viii) The number of vehicles has increased considerably. Also, the public transport system is unable to keep pace with growing demand, so more people use private vehicles, leading to increased congestion.

(ix) (b) adverse

(x) The word is repeatedly.
(Citizens of Delhi/NCR have repeatedly pondered over the possibilities of how to reduce traffic congestion.)

Source: Passage on Traffic Congestion, Paragraphs 1–5

---

• (ii) Paragraphs 2 and 3 give direct reasons (vehicle increase + statistical data). Paragraph 1 gives consequences, not reasons.
• (iii) "Peak hours" appears in paragraph 5; peak = opposite of lowest.
• (vi) Only paragraph 5 gives solutions; paragraph 3 just gives statistics. The correct answer is (b) 3, 5 — but note paragraph 3 has no solutions; examiners likely intended (a) 1, 4, 5 or (b). Check your specific paper's answer key.
• (x) "Time and again" = repeatedly. Other options like "frequently" or "often" are also acceptable but "repeatedly" is the closest single-word substitute.
• Always answer strictly from the passage; do not add outside information.

(i) (a) new snow or rain.

(ii) When over a foot of fresh snow falls, experts know to watch for avalanches. Warning signs help experts predict and often prevent avalanches from occurring.

(iii) Two reasons that destroyed the natural scenery:

• Avalanches have destroyed forests.
• Avalanches have destroyed roads and railroads.

(iv) (a) tiny

(v) (a) People caught in the Avalanche can try to swim to the top.

(vi) (c) The guest felt uneasy and uncomfortable watching the child's performance.
(Both phrases express opposites/contrast: up–down :: uneasy–uncomfortable are paired contrasting feelings.)

(vii) (d) Plastic waste

(viii) Explosives can be used in places with massive snow build-ups to trigger smaller avalanches that don't pose a danger to persons or property.

(ix) (a) likely to cause death

(x) (a) Avalanches

---

• (i) Paragraph 2 directly states new snow or rain causes snow to loosen and fall.
• (ii) Answers must come strictly from paragraph 3.
• (iii) The passage mentions forests, roads, railroads, and towns — any two natural/built elements count.
• (iv) 'Massive' means very large; its antonym is 'tiny.'
• (v) Paragraph 4 explicitly advises "swimming" to the surface.
• (vi) The stem uses two contrasting directions (up/down); option (c) mirrors two contrasting states in one experience — this is the intended analogy.
• (vii) Earthquakes, snowfall, and rain are all mentioned as triggers; plastic waste is never mentioned.
• (viii) Complete the sentence directly from paragraph 3 — no paraphrasing needed.
• (ix) 'Deadly' literally means causing or capable of causing death.
• (x) The entire passage revolves around avalanches — what they are, causes, warnings, and survival. 'Avalanches' is the most precise title.

(i) …just as people who were deprived of dining out for a long time rush to restaurants in large numbers to make up for the lost experience, Indians, after two years of travel restrictions, began travelling eagerly and in large numbers to compensate for the time lost.

(ii) The statement is a fact because it is an objective detail.

(iii) According to the survey, more than 70 percent of Indians are excited about travelling internationally. After over two years of restrictions that kept people confined to their homes, there is a strong pent-up desire to explore the world, expand horizons, and connect with other cultures, making international travel highly anticipated.

(iv) Education — In 2019, 5.8 lakh Indians travelled abroad for education, which rose to 6.5 lakh in 2022.

(v) Workcations is reflected in the table. The number of Indians travelling abroad for residency (72.5 L in 2022) and visit (40.9 L in 2022) remained high, suggesting people combining work with travel/stay abroad.
(Accept: any reasonable link to the data.)

(vi) In both 2019 (89.5 L) and 2022 (72.5 L), Residency was the purpose for which the maximum number of Indians travelled abroad. Inference: Despite the pandemic, Indians' desire to settle/stay abroad remained consistently the highest compared to all other purposes.

(vii) Students today choose to study abroad because of the availability of short-duration courses of two to three years. Additionally, growing aspirations and increasing affordability among middle-class students from Tier II and Tier III cities have made overseas education more accessible and attractive.

(viii) C — Indians are excited about being able to travel internationally.

---

• (i) The analogy must explain why the comparison holds — i.e., both involve making up for a forced deprivation. Don't just restate the analogy.
• (ii) A fact = verifiable/objective detail. An opinion = subjective. Numbers and statistics = facts.
• (iii) Use para 3: 70%+ excited, two years of restrictions = justification. Stay within ~40 words.
• (iv) Education is the only category that shows a net increase from 2019 to 2022 (5.8L → 6.5L). All others dropped.
• (v) "Workcations" (working while vacationing) best links to residency/visit data. Examiners accept reasonable justification.
• (vi) Always state the figure AND the inference — both parts are needed for the mark.
• (vii) Two reasons from para 4: short-duration courses + rising aspirations/affordability in Tier II & III cities.
• (viii) Option C directly matches the survey's key finding (70%+ excited). Option A is only 51%, B is not from the survey, D is irrelevant.

(i) C — All three biotics are equally important to support microscopic organisms that live in the gut microbiome.

(ii) Scientific evidence has linked all three biotics with improvements beyond digestion — including metabolic diseases like obesity and cholesterol abnormalities, depressive symptoms, and poor sleep quality. Thus, their health benefits extend well beyond the gastrointestinal tract to overall human health.

(iii) …specific strains of bacteria listed on the label, since different strains of Lactobacillus and Bifidobacterium offer different health benefits to match individual requirements.

(iv) The two sets of antonyms are:

• A — increase and decrease
• C — beneficial and harmful

(v) …many different strains, each with different health benefits, so the right strain can be chosen to match a specific health requirement.

(vi) Prebiotics are indigestible carbohydrates or fibers that serve as food for probiotics. They pass undigested into the intestine, where beneficial bacteria (probiotics) feed on them. Without prebiotics, probiotics would lack nourishment, making both essential to a healthy gut.

(vii) B — Checking the label for specific strains of bacteria.

(viii) A — Their relevance has been proven by scientific evidence.

---

• (i): Para 1 clearly states all three biotics are "critical" — option C is the only accurate reflection; A contradicts para 1, B contradicts para 5, D is too narrow.
• (ii): Must cite para 2 directly — metabolic diseases, depression, sleep quality are key examples. Two marks = two supporting points.
• (iii): Para 5 says check label for "specific strains"; para 4 clarifies strains have different benefits — combine both.
• (iv): Antonyms = words with opposite meanings. "Increase/decrease" (para 3) and "beneficial/harmful" (para 1) are clear pairs. B, D, E are not antonym pairs.
• (v): Para 4 — "many strains, each with different health benefits" is the key phrase to reproduce.
• (vi): Paras 6–7 are the source. Prebiotics = food for probiotics; without this relationship, postbiotics cannot be produced either.
• (vii): Para 5 explicitly recommends checking label for specific strains — B is directly stated; A is warned against.
• (viii): Para 2 states "a growing body of scientific evidence has linked" all three biotics to health improvements — A is correct.

(i) It is a fact because it is an objective detail.

(ii) True. Para 1 states crop rotation aims for higher agricultural returns, and para 2 confirms that irrigation availability helps intensify agriculture, making crop rotation more sustainable.

(iii) As seen in Punjab and Haryana, farmers harvest three consecutive soil-exhaustive crops (rice → wheat → rice/maize/cotton) in one year. While this increases income, continuous exhaustion of soil nutrients without adequate recovery depletes soil fertility rapidly.

(iv) The land was left fallow for the maximum number of days (210) in the years 1961, 1963, and 1965.

(v) One inference: The Zaid season (April–June) was considered unsuitable for cultivation, possibly due to lack of irrigation facilities or unfavourable climatic conditions, so farmers chose to leave the land fallow during this period.

(vi) (D) (1) and (5)

(vii) Benefit: Crop rotation helps maintain soil fertility and makes agriculture more sustainable by preventing continuous nutrient depletion.
Drawback: When only soil-exhaustive crops are rotated (as in Punjab/Haryana), it depletes soil fertility at a faster pace despite fetching higher income.

(viii) (B) Crop rotation is a sustainable practice that can transform the agricultural sector.

Source: Passage on Rotation of Crops, Paras 1–4 and Table.

---

• (i) Fact vs. opinion: since irrigation development is a documented, verifiable detail, it is a fact and an objective detail — not a subjective judgement.
• (ii) Combine paras 1 and 2 logically; both irrigation and crop rotation contribute to better returns.
• (iii) Use the specific Punjab/Haryana example from para 3 — examiners expect textual evidence.
• (iv) Read the table carefully; 210 fallow days appear in odd years (1961, 1963, 1965).
• (v) Any reasonable inference about why Zaid was always fallow is acceptable — focus on irrigation or climate.
• (vi) Statement (2) is wrong (soil-exhaustive crops reduce fertility); (3) is not stated in the passage; (4) is about irrigation, not crop rotation's significance directly. Only (1) and (5) match para 1.
• (vii) Keep benefit and drawback clearly labelled; draw both from the passage.
• (viii) The passage's overall message supports (B); the other options are not supported by the text.

(i) (B) Rapidly increasing production of disposable plastic products.

(ii) The tone is admiring/appreciative. The writer acknowledges the transformative impact of plastics on modern life, highlighting how indispensable they have become — revolutionizing medicine, space travel, and transport — suggesting that life without plastics is now beyond imagination.

(iii) The two sets of synonyms are:

• (A) garbage and trash
• (E) transformed and revolutionized

(iv) …because once plastic trash is caught up in ocean currents, it can be carried across the world.

(v) The convenience of plastics has created a throw-away culture. Single-use plastics make up 40% of all plastic produced. Products like bags and food wrappers last only minutes to hours in use, yet persist in the environment for hundreds of years, causing lasting pollution.

(vi) According to conservationists, most animal deaths are caused by entanglement (being strangled by fishing gear or six-pack rings) and starvation (from ingesting plastics).

(vii) (B) by minimizing the use of single-use plastics.

(viii) Plastic pollution is most visible in developing Asian and African nations because their garbage collection systems are often inefficient or nonexistent, leading to improper disposal of plastic waste.

Source: Reading Comprehension Passage on Plastic Pollution

---

• (i) The passage opens with "rapidly increasing production of disposable plastic products" as the direct cause — option B mirrors this exactly.
• (ii) For tone questions, name the tone + justify with 1–2 examples from the text. Examiners award 1 mark for correct tone, 1 mark for rationale.
• (iii) Synonyms = same/similar meaning. Garbage = trash; transformed = revolutionized. Avoid (B) — starvation and strangled are different concepts.
• (iv) Answer is directly in paragraph 4: "caught up in ocean currents."
• (v) Focus on the "downside" — throw-away culture, short lifespan of use vs. long environmental persistence. Don't mention benefits.
• (vi) Paragraph 5 explicitly states: "entanglement or starvation."
• (vii) Paragraph 6 mentions "reduction in manufacturing of unnecessary single-use plastics" — option B is closest.
• (viii) Stick to one clear reason from paragraph 1 only.

(i) (A) Indian tourists prefer places in the country itself.

(ii) The statement is a fact because it is an objective detail.

(iii) In 2022, domestic tourist visits within India were remarkably high at 1.7 billion, whereas Indians travelling outside the country numbered only 21 million. This shows that travel within India is far more popular than international outbound tourism among Indians.

(iv) Gulf states rank as popular destinations for Indians because a large number of Indian migrants already reside there, making it convenient and familiar for tourists to visit, and migration trends significantly influence these travel choices.

(v) (B) Both the Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(vi) The fourth most visited outbound destination for Indians to the Gulf is Kuwait, with approximately 830,000 Indian visitors.

(vii) Two reasons for domestic tourism becoming popular:

• It suits the budget of many travellers.
• People love to explore India's historical and cultural diversity.

(viii) The writer states that western countries like the USA and UK attract Indian tourists because:

• They offer a mix of traditional and contemporary experiences.
• They provide unique cuisines and diverse landscapes.

(ix) The word that indicates the 'preference' of people travelling to the Gulf is "popularity" ("The popularity of Gulf States…").

Source: Reading Comprehension Passage — Paragraphs 1, 2, and 3

---

• (i) "Prioritise domestic destinations" simply means choosing places within the country first — option A fits directly.
• (ii) Statistics from an official report (IOM) are objective, verifiable facts — not someone's opinion.
• (iii) Use the exact figures: 1.7 billion vs 21 million. Examiners want a clear comparison in ~40 words.
• (iv) The passage links Gulf popularity to migration trends — always cite the reason from the passage, not general knowledge.
• (v) The passage lists UP and Andhra Pradesh as top states but gives multiple reasons (budget, culture, history, infrastructure) — historical monuments alone don't fully explain it, so the reason is true but not the correct/complete explanation.
• (vi) Among Gulf states: UAE (5.9 M) → Saudi Arabia (2.4 M) → Qatar (880,000) → Kuwait (830,000). Kuwait is fourth.
• (vii) Lift reasons directly from paragraph 1.
• (viii) Paragraph 2 mentions USA/UK — pick the two reasons stated there.
• (ix) Paragraph 3 opens with "The popularity of Gulf States…" — this word signals preference/liking.

(i) The characteristic aroma and flavour of cinnamon originate from its essential oil, primarily composed of cinnamaldehyde, as well as other constituents including eugenol.

(ii) Cinnamon is made fit for use as a spice by first cutting the stems of cinnamon trees and extracting the inner bark after removing the woody parts. The bark is then dried, causing it to curl into rolls called cinnamon sticks, which can further be ground into cinnamon powder.

(iii) Cassia cinnamon has a robust, rich, somewhat bitter flavour, whereas Ceylon cinnamon is sweeter and lighter in flavour.

(iv) The author says that cinnamon was once more valuable than gold because it was highly sought after in Egypt for embalming and religious practices, used in medieval Europe for religious rites, and was the most profitable spice in the Dutch East India Company trade.

(v) The tone is informative and appreciative. The writer acknowledges cinnamon's long-standing medicinal value across thousands of years while also noting that modern science is beginning to validate these traditional beliefs, reflecting both respect for historical knowledge and a factual, balanced outlook.

(vi) (C) only 3

(vii) (D) Cinnamon's anti-inflammatory properties are being researched for its potential benefits in Alzheimer's disease, irritable bowel syndrome and colon cancer.

(viii) (C) Recognizes that cinnamon has many useful properties, including health benefits.

---

• (i) Direct retrieval — "cinnamaldehyde" is explicitly named as the principal component of the essential oil.
• (ii) 2-mark answers need a process description (~40 words). Follow the sequence: cut stems → extract inner bark → remove woody parts → dry → curl into sticks → grind into powder.
• (iii) Any one clear difference (origin, price, or flavour) earns the mark. Flavour contrast is the sharpest and easiest to state.
• (iv) Fill-in answers must complete the sentence logically using passage evidence from paragraph (3).
• (v) Identify the tone and justify it (~40 words). "Informative and appreciative" fits because the writer presents historical value positively while staying factual.
• (vi) Both phrases use "started to confirm" and "more evidence needed" — neither confirms fully, so the benefits remain uncertain (only 3).
• (vii) Option D matches paragraph (5) exactly. Options A, B, C contradict the passage directly.
• (viii) The passage covers culinary use, historical value, and health properties — option C best reflects the author's broad, balanced recognition of cinnamon's many useful properties.

(i) Silk has a long history in India and is popular across regions. It is called Resham in eastern and northern India and Pattu in southern India, showing its widespread cultural presence. India is also the second largest producer of silk in the world.

(ii) B — Both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion. Silk feels comfortable because of its natural soft and smooth texture, not merely because it is a protein fibre.

(iii) Although silk is one of the strongest natural fibres, its elasticity is moderate to poor. If elongated even a small amount, it remains stretched and does not return to its original shape.

(iv) Exposure to too much sunlight can weaken silk, reducing its strength and durability.

(v) Silk production is extremely resource-intensive; a very large quantity of raw material (mulberry leaves) and a large number of silkworms are needed to produce even a small amount of silk.

(vi) Silk production work can be carried out by skilled artisans because it requires specialised knowledge, expertise, and craftsmanship.

(vii) Uttar Pradesh (UP) was the smallest producer of silk in 2021, producing only 179 metric tonnes.

(viii) To carry out silk production requires careful selection because superior quality silk fabrics are made from long and uniform silk fibres, giving them a smooth and lustrous appearance.

(ix) Silk production is limited because it depends on factors like climate, availability of quality mulberry leaves, and the time required by silkworms to complete their lifecycle.

Source: Passage on Silk / Sericulture

---

• (i) Two pieces of evidence are needed for 2 marks — regional names and India's global rank both count.
• (ii) The comfort comes from the texture (para 2), not from being a protein fibre — so the reason doesn't explain the assertion. Choose B.
• (iii) Quote/paraphrase directly from para 3 on elasticity.
• (iv) One-line answer quoting para 3 is sufficient for 1 mark.
• (v) An inference means drawing a logical conclusion — here it's about how resource-heavy silk production is.
• (vi) Complete the sentence using the exact phrase from para 5 about specialised knowledge.
• (vii) Read the data carefully — UP at 179 MT is the lowest figure listed.
• (viii) The sentence completion answer is directly in para 5 (last point).
• (ix) Pick any one factor from para 5 — climate, mulberry leaves, or lifecycle time.

(i) C — It provides nutritious food.

(ii) Growing a kitchen garden is cost effective because it saves money and time by growing fresh produce at home using empty tins, old utensils, and clay flower pots, reducing dependence on costly market supplies.

(iii) Two differences between traditional farming and kitchen gardens:

| Traditional Farming | Kitchen Gardens |
|---|---|
| Uses synthetic fertilizers and pesticides | Promotes organic farming, reducing harmful chemicals |
| Involves intensive irrigation methods | Preserves soil health with sustainable practices |

(iv) The correct word from Paragraph (4) is fostering (replacing "nurturing").

(v) Tending to a kitchen garden provides multiple health benefits. Fresh, organic produce ensures higher intake of essential nutrients, vitamins, and minerals. Gardening is a therapeutic exercise that relieves stress. The physical activity involved keeps individuals active, reducing the risk of obesity and related health issues.

(vi) B — It helps develop sensitivity and appreciation for nature.

(vii) Two hurdles kitchen gardeners face:

1. Limited space
2. Lack of sunlight (also: soil quality issues)

(viii) False. The passage does not state that everyone in cities must practise kitchen gardening; it says it is imperative to provide support and resources to encourage urban gardening initiatives.

Source: Passage on Kitchen Gardens in Urban Areas, Paragraphs (1)–(8)

---

• (i) The phrase "garnered greater acknowledgement" signals rising recognition/importance — not cost or inflation. Nutritious food is the stated significance in Para 1.
• (ii) Direct inference from Para 2: "saves money and time" + reuse of household containers.
• (iii) Examiners expect a clear contrast; a table or two labelled points both work equally well.
• (iv) "Fostering" means nurturing/promoting — Para 4 uses it in the same sense as "nurturing" in the question.
• (v) Draw from both paragraphs as instructed; 40 words means 3–4 sentences maximum.
• (vi) Para 6 specifically says children "develop an appreciation for the environment" — option B.
• (vii) Any two from: limited space, lack of sunlight, soil quality issues.
• (viii) The passage encourages and supports kitchen gardening but never mandates it for "everyone" — hence False.

(i) The phrase 'luxurious qualities' tells us that silk is an exceptionally fine and comfortable fabric. Evidence: it has "a natural soft and smooth texture that feels comfortable on the skin" and uniquely absorbs and releases moisture, regulating body temperature, keeping the wearer cool and dry.

(ii) A — Both the assertion and the reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. (Long and uniform silk fibres give a smooth and lustrous appearance, making careful selection necessary, which adds to the cost.)

(iii) Silk is costly because its production is labour-intensive, requires skilled artisans with specialised knowledge, depends on natural factors like climate and mulberry leaf availability, and demands careful selection of long and uniform fibres — all making the creation meticulous and rare.

(iv) The top two silk-producing countries are China (largest) and India (second largest).

(v) Silk production is highly dependent on natural and environmental conditions, making it seasonal and geographically limited, which restricts output and contributes to silk's scarcity and high cost.

(vi) Though silk is considered one of the strongest fibres, it is not without weaknesses — it loses up to 20% of its strength when wet, has poor elasticity, can be weakened by sunlight, and may be attacked by insects.

(vii) Most: Karnataka (8483 metric tonnes); Least: Uttar Pradesh (179 metric tonnes).

(viii) 104 kg of mulberry leaves eaten by 3000 silkworms results in the production of 1 kg of silk.

(ix) Silk production requires specialised knowledge and expertise of skilled artisans and craftsmanship, making the entire process intensive in human effort and skill.

Source: Passage on Silk — paragraphs (1)–(5) and statistical data

---

• (i) needs textual evidence — quote directly from paragraph 2. 40 words is the limit; don't exceed.
• (ii) Option A is correct because paragraph 5 explicitly links careful selection to long/uniform fibres and lustrous appearance — the reason directly explains the assertion.
• (iii) Justify means give reasons from the text; link labour, skill, natural dependency, and careful selection briefly.
• (iv) Straight factual recall from paragraph 1.
• (v) "Inference" = a logical conclusion drawn from the fact; here, it points to natural/seasonal limitations affecting production volume and cost.
• (vi) Fill the blank with limitations listed in paragraph 3 — examiner expects at least one specific weakness.
• (vii) Read the data table carefully: highest = Karnataka, lowest = UP.
• (viii) Direct figure from paragraph 4 — just flip the statement.
• (ix) Pick one clear reason from paragraph 5; skilled artisans/specialised knowledge is the most direct answer.

(i) The tone is admiring/reverential. The writer uses phrases like "prized spice" and highlights its medicinal properties and royal use, clearly expressing deep respect and awe for saffron's historical significance and value.

(ii) C — Saffron is considered the most valuable spice, similar to how gold is valued among metals.

(iii) Two reasons why saffron is revered globally:

• It has a strong exotic aroma, unique flavour, and infuses dishes with a subtle earthy sweetness.
• It is a key ingredient in several iconic dishes worldwide, such as Paella, Bouillabaisse, Biryani, and Risotto Milanese.

(iv) B — widely recognized

(v) Saffron has a labour-intensive cultivation process which involves handpicking three stigmas from each flower, spreading them on trays, and drying them over charcoal fires. About 150,000 flowers are needed per kilogram, requiring nearly forty hours of labour.

(vi) False. Historians only speculate saffron was first domesticated in Iran; south-western Greek islands remain strong contenders. The passage does not mention its first kitchen use.

(vii) C — Due to its labour-intensive cultivation process and its relatively low yield per plant.

(viii) The writer states that adulterants like beetroot or pomegranate are added to enhance red colour, silk fibres, oil, or wax are used to add bulk, and powdered saffron is mixed with turmeric and paprika — clearly evidencing widespread adulteration.

Source: Passage on Saffron, Paragraphs 1–7

---

• (i) "Tone" questions expect one clear word + justification from the text. Admiring/reverential fits; avoid vague words like "positive."
• (ii) The comparison is about value/status, not physical properties or exact price — eliminates A, B, D.
• (iii) 2 marks = 2 distinct points; draw one each from Para 2 and Para 3.
• (iv) "Iconic" means famous/widely recognised — not rare or strange.
• (v) 2-mark fill-in needs a complete, detailed phrase covering the full process from Para 4.
• (vi) Key word in Para 5 is "speculate" — it is not a confirmed fact, so the statement is False.
• (vii) Para 6 explicitly links high price to labour-intensive harvesting and low yield — C is directly supported.
• (viii) Quote specific adulterants from Para 7 as evidence; the examiner wants textual support, not opinion.

(i) The global demand for beauty products has intensified because of evolving beauty standards and social media influence.

---

(ii) (B) The industry is growing and evolving by the day.

---

(iii) The word "projected" indicates that the cosmetics industry is anticipated to grow.

---

(iv) Teenagers and young adults are driven by increasing awareness of personal grooming and skin care routines, and their desire to seek trendy and innovative solutions.

---

(v) (D) The Assertion is false, but the Reason is true.
(The market generated revenue, not profit, of ₹ 1,34,000 crore.)

---

(vi) E-commerce platforms have expanded access to cosmetics, especially in Tier II and Tier III cities, contributing around 25% of total cosmetics sales in India, thereby significantly boosting the industry's overall revenue.

---

(vii) The skincare segment's current share is approximately 35%.

---

(viii) That men's grooming has increased the demand for gender-neutral cosmetic formulations symbolizes an aspirational pursuit of personal refinement that dismantles archaic stereotypes associated with male cosmetics consumption.

---

(ix) Two major challenges faced by the cosmetics industry are:

1. Managing intense competition and complying with government regulations while ensuring product quality.
2. Dealing with copied (counterfeit) products and navigating the complexities of the supply chain.

---
Source: Passage on the Indian Cosmetics Industry, Paragraphs 1–5

---

• (i) Lift the reason directly from Para 1 — examiners check passage accuracy.
• (ii) "Thrives on innovation" means it grows by constantly evolving — option B is the closest match.
• (iii) "Projected" is the key vocabulary word signalling future expectation/anticipation.
• (iv) Both factors — grooming awareness AND trendy/innovative solutions — are needed for full credit.
• (v) The trap is the word "profit" in the Assertion; the passage says "revenue." So the Assertion is factually wrong, making (D) correct.
• (vi) Keep within 30–40 words; include the statistic (25%) for precision.
• (vii) Read carefully — skincare leads at 35%, not 25% (which is hair care).
• (viii) Quote/paraphrase Para 4's concluding idea about dismantling stereotypes and personal refinement.
• (ix) Any two clearly named challenges from Para 5 earn full marks; brief explanation adds clarity.

(i) (D) fear of being left out of rewarding experiences

(ii) (B) of constant edits and updates on the social media platforms

(iii) The 'experience economy' commodifies memories and moments, intensifying pressure on individuals to participate in everything — from music festivals to viral food crazes — making them feel they must constantly engage or miss out.

(iv) FOMO makes decision-making increasingly worrisome. People hesitate to commit to plans, fearing a better alternative may emerge later. This leads to impulsive choices such as overspending on unnecessary products, overcommitting to events, or making hasty life decisions just to avoid feeling excluded.

(v) The writer states that highlighted reels of professional journeys shared online breed discontent and cause anxiety and dissatisfaction, where no experience feels complete — clearly supporting the view that FOMO leads to emotional consequences.

(vi) Two effective ways to deal with FOMO:

• Set specific timings for checking social media apps to avoid constant comparison.
• Engage in mindful breathing or meditation to stay grounded in the present.

(vii) True. Paragraph (6) states that overcoming FOMO requires intentional strategies, which means one must make a conscious effort to come out of this state of mind.

(viii) (B) withstand emotional anxiety of FOMO.

---

• MCQs (i), (ii), (viii): Answer must be the option letter + the option text. One line each.
• (iii), (v): Lift key phrases directly from the passage — examiners check textual accuracy.
• (iv) is 2 marks: needs two distinct points — hesitation to commit AND impulsive choices.
• (vi): List format is expected; two clear, separate strategies from Para (6).
• (vii): True/False must include a brief justification to be safe.

(i) (B) Both the Assertion and the Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(The passage states glassblowing made glassware accessible, affordable and versatile and allowed mass production — not specifically that it produced "complex objects faster".)

(ii) The word is "craze" — "the craze for glassware has made this industry a significant segment…"

(iii) India's glass industry has a diverse range as it comprises container glass (used in packaging, 25% of market), flat glass (essential for construction and automotive, contributing 55% of revenue), and fibreglass — three distinct product categories serving very different sectors.

(iv) 25%

(v) Firozabad is referred to as the "City of Glass" because it is the heart of the Indian glass industry, specializing in decorative glassware, chandeliers, bangles and domestic glass products, with over 400 manufacturing units.

(vi) The figure of over 1,50,000 workers employed in Firozabad's glassware units emphasizes that the industry is a massive source of livelihood, making it a vital employment hub for the local and regional population.

(vii) …it uniquely blends traditional craftsmanship with modern technology, making its handmade artistic and decorative glassware distinctive from the industrially dominated glass production of China and the USA.

(viii) Recycled glass (cullet) requires lower melting temperatures, which reduces energy consumption and carbon emissions, making the manufacturing process more environmentally responsible.

(ix) …it is dependent on imported raw materials, involves energy-intensive manufacturing processes, and must comply with strict environmental regulations, all of which add to operational costs and constraints.

Source: Reading Passage, Paragraphs 1–5

---

• (i): The Reason mentions "complex objects faster," which the passage does NOT state; the passage says mass production, accessibility, and affordability — so the Reason is true in spirit but is NOT what the passage gives as the explanation. Hence (B).
• (ii): Examiners want the exact word from the paragraph — "craze" is the direct synonym of fascination used there.
• (iii): A 2-mark answer needs evidence (examples + detail); name all three product types and their significance.
• (iv–ix): These 1-mark answers must be concise — one or two lines only, directly lifted or paraphrased from the relevant paragraph.

(i) (B) the potential to misuse or compromise a person's data.

(ii) (A) it discloses a person's personal information on an online platform.

(iii) The writer states that doxing is "weaponized to frighten, harass, or harm the targeted individual." This leads to severe psychological effects such as anxiety, stress, fear, and paranoia. The victim's sense of personal safety and control over their own life is severely compromised, causing lasting mental distress.

(iv) False. The paragraph clearly states that a determined doxer can exploit security lapses like weak passwords to scrape personal information, directly linking password strength to information privacy.

(v) Doxing is ethically wrong because it is a clear violation of personal autonomy and disproportionately harms marginalized groups, who often face accelerated real-world risks from such exposures.

(vi) (B) It is impossible to erase the information once released online.

(vii) In cases of online scams or criminal behaviour, Internet users have identified and revealed the real identities of offenders who might otherwise have escaped accountability, thus promoting justice.

(viii) Two preventive steps individuals can take are:

1. Locking down social media privacy settings to limit the personal information accessible to others.
2. Enabling two-factor authentication to add an extra layer of security to their accounts.

Source: Reading Comprehension Passage — Paragraphs 1–5

---

• (i)–(ii), (iv), (vi): These are direct recall/MCQ/T-F questions — pick the option best supported by the passage; avoid overthinking.
• (iii): A 2-mark answer needs two distinct points — here: the intent (frighten/harm) + the psychological outcomes (anxiety, fear, paranoia). Always quote or closely paraphrase the passage.
• (v): Lift the ethical reason directly from Para 3 — examiners want "violation of personal autonomy" and the point about marginalized groups.
• (vii): One specific example is enough for 1 mark — online scams/criminal identity exposure is the clearest one from Para 4.
• (viii): Two named preventive measures from Para 5 are sufficient; no need to list all of them.

(i) EVs offer multiple benefits in India. They have lower running costs due to cheaper electricity and require less maintenance because of fewer moving parts. Additionally, they reduce noise pollution in urban areas, making cities more liveable and environmentally friendly.

(ii) (A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(iii) Although the government offers subsidies and tax benefits to make EVs more affordable, the initial high purchase cost of EVs is still a concern, making them difficult for many consumers to afford.

(iv) The silent operation of EVs contributes to better urban living because EVs lower noise pollution in urban areas.

(v) One inference is that EV adoption in India is growing rapidly and gaining consumer acceptance, as sales crossed 1.5 million in 2023, showing a significant rise compared to previous years.

(vi) 'Range anxiety' refers to the fear of running out of charge before reaching a destination, i.e., the concern that an EV's battery will not last long enough for the journey.

(vii) Two-wheelers dominated EV sales in India in 2023, followed by three-wheelers and then passenger cars.

(viii) To address the challenge of charging infrastructure, various initiatives are being undertaken, such as increasing public charging stations and exploring battery swapping technology as a quick alternative to traditional charging.

(ix) The adoption of EVs is slow in some parts of India because public charging stations are not sufficiently available, especially in semi-urban and rural areas, creating a bottleneck.

Source: "The Rise of Electric Vehicles in India," paragraphs 1–5

---

• (i) requires evidence from the text — always quote or paraphrase specific details (running cost, maintenance, noise).
• (ii) The reason (government commitment to reducing carbon emissions) is indeed one of the stated drivers of EV growth, so it directly explains the assertion → Option A.
• (iii) "Justify" means acknowledge the challenge despite the support — link subsidies to the still-existing high cost.
• (iv) This is a fill-in-the-blank; lift directly from paragraph 2.
• (v) An "inference" goes one step beyond the fact — the student should conclude what the statistic implies (rapid growth/acceptance).
• (vi) The passage defines it indirectly as "the fear of running out of charge" — always use the passage's own words.
• (vii) Factual recall from paragraph 5.
• (viii) Two solutions are given in paragraph 4; mention at least one.
• (ix) Paragraph 3 clearly states charging infrastructure gaps in semi-urban/rural areas as the bottleneck.

(i) The phrase 'Lungs of the Earth' refers to forests, as they regulate temperatures and help keep the air clean, just as lungs purify air in living beings.

(ii) Option (a) — balancing climate change and creating livelihoods for people.

(iii) The writer states that forests "provide critical ecosystem services like water conservation, soil fertility, and carbon sequestration, which are essential in combating climate change." This shows forests maintain water cycles, enrich soil, and absorb carbon, all of which are vital ecosystem services.

(iv) (C) Forest cover is rapidly declining.

(v) Option (b) — The introduction of initiatives like Van Mahotsav serve as compensatory afforestation.

(Note: This reflects the tension between development needs and preservation efforts.)

(vi) True. Paragraph 4 states that forest loss "exacerbates climate-related challenges such as rising temperatures and erratic rainfall."

(vii) Critics point out that afforestation projects often involve planting monoculture species, which disrupt ecosystems instead of restoring natural biodiversity.

(viii) Community-based conservation models empower local communities to act as custodians of forests. This ensures their livelihoods are protected while simultaneously maintaining the health of forest ecosystems. When communities are invested in forest protection, both human well-being and ecological balance are sustained together.

Source: Reading passage on Forests of India, Paragraphs 1–6

---

• (i): Look for the function described in the passage — regulating temperature and cleaning air — to explain the metaphor.
• (ii): Option (a) directly echoes Para 1 ("regulating climate" and "supporting livelihoods"). Option (b) is not mentioned in Para 1.
• (iii): 2-mark answers need a quote + explanation. Always lift exact words from the passage as evidence.
• (iv): The statistic of 66,000 hectares lost confirms rapid decline — (C).
• (v): Para 3 discusses dependence of tribal communities vs. forest preservation — this mirrors the conservation vs. development tension that initiatives like Van Mahotsav address.
• (vi): Straightforward True/False — the passage explicitly mentions "erratic rainfall."
• (vii): Focus only on Para 5; monoculture is the key criticism.
• (viii): 2-mark answer needs two distinct points: livelihoods + ecosystem health. Use Para 6 language.

I. (D) People who use internet actively

II. (B) Both the Assertion and the Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

III. The word is "relatively" ("these figures seem relatively low").

IV. (A) 2017 to 2020
(Internet reach increased from 24.0% to 43.4%, a rise of 19.4 percentage points — the highest among all options.)

V. The digital divide (gender gap) is one reason why there are fewer internet users among women.

VI. Infrastructure limitations impedes digital adoption.

VII. An increase in the number of connections in urban areas is because of a higher density of population.

VIII. The two ways to bridge the gap of digital unawareness are:

1. Targeted awareness campaigns
2. Digital literacy programmes

IX. The author justifies this by listing the wide range of internet activities Indians engage in daily — from information and research to shopping and entertainment to living in smart homes — showing that Indians have fully embraced digital living in every aspect of their lives.

Source: Reading passage — "Rate of Internet Reach in India," Paragraphs 1–3 and Table

---

• Q I: "Active internet users" means people who actively use it — adverb modifies the verb, not the noun "internet."
• Q II: Both statements are true, but the reason (awareness/gender gap) explains why India has NOT reached full potential, not why it has a large netizen base — so it does not correctly explain the assertion.
• Q III: Always look for hedging/comparative adverbs; "relatively" directly qualifies "low."
• Q IV: Calculate the difference for each period from the table: 2017–2020 = 19.4 pts, the largest jump.
• Q V & VI: Answers must come directly from Paragraph 2; "impedes" (hinders) is correct since limitations slow adoption.
• Q VIII: Worth 2 marks — give two distinct points clearly.
• Q IX: 1-mark answer needs only one well-supported point from Paragraph 3.

I. The phrase means that pancakes have an unexpectedly old and varied history, spanning many cultures and thousands of years.

II. Option B — it can be used for cooking and also for eating.
(The injera is used as both a plate and utensil.)

III. American pancakes are made light and fluffy by the use of baking powder, which makes them light and airy. They gained popularity in the 18th century.

IV. True. The passage states, "every culture has found a way to adapt this simple food to its own taste and traditions."

V. Option A — Dosa and appam.
Both are made from fermented batter (rice and lentils for dosa; fermented rice batter for appam).

VI. Option A — Like a painter starts with a blank canvas, a diner can get creative.
The phrase means pancakes can be topped or filled in many creative ways.

VII. Two points supporting the statement:

1. Pancakes have been made and shared across cultures for 30,000 years, reflecting a shared history of creativity.
2. Each pancake tells a story of regional identity and food traditions, bringing people together through a deep love for food.

VIII. Option A — comfort food that provides a sense of emotional security.
The phrase "warm, edible hugs" suggests pancakes offer emotional warmth and comfort, not just physical nourishment.

Source: Reading Comprehension Passage — Pancakes

---

• I: "Surprisingly long" = unexpectedly ancient; "diverse" = varied across cultures. Both ideas needed.
• II: The key detail is "used as both a plate and utensil" — B matches this. Option A is not supported.
• III: Two separate facts needed for 2 marks — baking powder (method) + 18th century (time).
• IV: The passage explicitly says every culture "adapted" it — True is correct.
• V: Only dosa and appam are explicitly described as made from fermented batter in the passage.
• VI: "Blank canvas" is a metaphor for creative freedom with toppings — A captures this correctly.
• VII: Pick any two well-supported points from paragraph 6. Quote or closely paraphrase.
• VIII: "Edible hugs" = emotional comfort/warmth — A is the best fit. Avoid over-literal options (C, D).

(i) (B) progress and development

(ii) (A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(iii) The phrase "public health monitoring" indicates supervision as one of the areas of AI applications.

(iv) In rural and underserved regions, AI supports initiatives like digital literacy, healthcare access, and agricultural support, thereby improving the quality of life and bridging the development gap.

(v) (A) 10%

(vi) The high percentage (60%) of AI implementations in urban areas suggests that technology development and adoption are concentrated in tech hubs and metropolitan cities, indicating an unequal distribution and limited reach to rural regions.

(vii) The collaboration between academic institutions and industry leaders in developing AI applications demonstrates the power of combined expertise in driving advancements in fields such as healthcare, finance, and transportation.

(viii) The most likely reason the passage mentions "interactive AI" as a key focus area is because it enhances user engagement and accessibility through tools like chatbots and virtual assistants.

(ix) Comparing parameters such as ethical concerns, accessibility, industry-specific applications, and societal impact helps reveal AI's true potential for transformative change. It highlights not just the widespread adoption of AI but also the gaps that exist — particularly in underserved communities. Such comparisons underscore the urgent need for inclusive and sustainable AI development, ensuring that its benefits are equitably distributed across all sections of society.

Source: Printed passage, paragraphs 1–5

---

• For MCQs, write only the option letter and its text — no elaboration needed.
• For (iii), scan paragraph 2 for a word/phrase meaning "supervision" — "monitoring" is the key term.
• For (v), the scenario describes agricultural AI in a rural/village setting — paragraph 4 places rural/underserved at 10%.
• For (ix), it carries 2 marks, so write 2–3 sentences covering: what the comparison reveals + why it matters (inclusive/sustainable development). Keep it tight — examiners look for both points.
• Always base answers strictly on the passage; do not add outside information.

(i) The phrase 'one of nature's most remarkable spectacles' refers to migration — the regular, long-distance movement of birds between their breeding and wintering grounds.

(ii) Migration is primarily driven by changes in seasons as (b) they move to warmer places for food, since food becomes scarce during harsh winters.

(iii) The Bar-headed goose is unique because it flies over the towering Himalayas at extremely high altitudes where oxygen levels are dangerously low. This is an extraordinary feat that astonishes even scientists.

(iv) Option (a) — travelling to unknown destinations without getting lost is truly amazing — best explains the phrase, as scientists still marvel at how birds find their way across vast distances.

(v) False. Rapid urbanization has destroyed vital wetlands and resting areas, making migration more difficult, not easier.

(vi) (A) Creation of more wetland sites and (C) work in cooperation with other countries will protect migratory birds, as the passage mentions protected wetland sites and international cooperation as key solutions.

(vii) Two points showing migratory birds maintain nature's balance:

1. They help in pollination and seed dispersal, supporting plant life.
2. They help in pest control, keeping insect populations in check.

(viii) Option (C) — Harmony between man and nature is essential. The passage concludes that the planet is shared and the harmony of life depends on care, cooperation, and respect for nature's rhythms.

Source: Passage on Bird Migration, paragraphs 1–6

---

• MCQ/True-False questions need the option letter/word plus a brief reason from the passage — one line suffices.
• For (iii) (2 marks), two distinct points are needed: the location (Himalayas) and the condition (low oxygen).
• For (vi), both correct options (A and C) should be identified; the passage explicitly mentions wetland sites and international cooperation, not eating habits or food spots.
• Always quote or paraphrase the passage directly — examiners reward answers grounded in the text.
• Keep answers concise; do not add outside knowledge.